Questions and Answers

Unlike the private sector, federal agencies are required to announce, rate, rank, interview/assess and investigate applicants before they can be selected. All applicants must be given consideration too. Additionally, before an announcement is posted, Federal Human Resources professionals and the associated supervisor must work together to define and describe the position with a long narrative and then evaluate the description against Office of Personnel Management standards. Then qualification and assessment criteria must be professionally developed.

Selecting an individual for a federal position is a huge investment too. Over the course of a 30- year career, selecting an individual for a career appointment can be a multi-million-dollar investment. Federal jobs are not gigs; they are careers where individuals make a commitment to public service. To ensure someone is the best candidate for the job, multiple interviews and/or screenings may be needed.

Yes. Check your application status in USAJobs. You can also find and filter your applications.

Yes. The announcement always includes a point of contact available to answer any questions you may have. Be sure to consult the announcement for that person’s name and contact information.

This is a legal requirement. Federal employees are often asked to handle sensitive, personally identifiable or medical information. If selected for a federal job, you must at least go through a basic background check to make sure you are reliable, trustworthy and suitable for the job. The background check process starts after you accept a job offer.

There is no limit to the number of jobs or timeframe you must adhere to in your federal job search. However, in order to maximize your time and the agency’s resources, we encourage you to apply to positions that you are truly interested in and feel qualified for.

We use both at ATF. The automated system helps us collect, organize, filter, rank and communicate with applicants. Real human beings, who are knowledgeable in the federal HR process and with the position, review applicants manually before they are sent to selecting officials. Automated systems help make the process easier, but it does not replace the need of having a real person review the applicants.

The Departments of State and Commerce published companion final rules in the Federal Register to amend Categories I, II, and III of the U.S. Munitions List (USML) in the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR). These final rules transfer export and temporary import controls for some firearms, ammunition, and parts and components from the Department of State to the Department of Commerce. Items transferred from the USML Categories I-III are subject to 500 and 600 series controls in Category 0 of the U.S. Department of Commerce’s Commerce Control List (CCL) in its Export Administration Regulations (EAR). The final rules went into effect March 9, 2020.

For further information, contact the U.S. Department of State, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls or the U.S. Department of Commerce, Bureau of Industry and Security.

When exporting NFA firearms, an ATF Form 9, Application and Permit for Per­manent Exportation of Firearms, must be approved by ATF prior to export.

[22 U.S.C. 2778; 27 CFR 479.114 and 479.116]

Yes. A licensee may make an occasional importation of a firearm for a nonlicensee or for the licensee’s personal use (not for resale). The licensee must first submit an ATF Form 6, Part I to ATF for approval. The licensee may then present the approved ATF Form 6 and completed ATF Form 6A to U.S. Customs and Border Protection.

[27 CFR 478.113]

U.S. residents who seek to import an importable firearm must engage the services of a federal firearms licensee to import the firearm on their behalf. Please see our most recent list of federal firearms licensees.

[18 U.S.C. § 922(a)(3), 923(a), 925(d); 27 CFR § 478.111, 478.112]

Generally, permanent imports of defense articles enumerated on the U.S. Munitions Import List (USMIL) at 27 CFR 447.21 require an ATF Form 6, Application and Permit for Importation of Firearms, Ammunition and Defense Articles  (5330.3A).

Persons in the United States engaged in the business of importing defense articles enumerated on the USMIL must register by making an application on the ATF Form 4587, Application to Register as an Importer of U.S. Munitions Import List Articles (5330.4).

[22 U.S.C. § 2778; 27 CFR § 478.111-478.120; 27 CFR § 447.31-447.35, 27 CFR § 447.41-447.45]

It is generally unlawful to import a machine gun into the United States for unrestricted sale. However, machine guns that are properly destroyed to ATF specifications may be imported.

A machine-gun parts kit is generally importable so long as the kit does not include a machine gun, barrel, frame or receiver. Note that machine gun destruction to ATF specifications will generally render a machine-gun parts kit importable in this respect (destroying a kit’s barrel, and/or frame, and/or receiver to ATF specifications so they are no longer considered a barrel, frame or receiver will generally render the kit importable in this respect).

Importations are subject to country restrictions. For example, machine-gun parts kits from firearms manufactured in Russia or one of the former Soviet States are not importable. Machinegun parts kits (excluding the frame, receiver or barrel) from a surplus military U.S.-origin machine gun will also require retransfer authorization from the U.S. Department of State.

For more information, see ATF Rulings 2003-1, 2003-2, 2003-3 and 2003-4.

[18 U.S.C. § 922(o); 26 U.S.C. § 5844; 22 U.S.C. § 2778; 27 CFR § 447.11, 447.21, 447.41, 447.52]

No. Rifle scopes manufactured to military specifications no longer require an ATF Form 6, Application and Permit for Importation of Firearms, Ammunition, and Defense Articles  (5330.3A) for importation.

[22 U.S.C. § 2778; 27 CFR § 447.21; 80 F.R. 30615 (May 29, 2015), finalizing without change 79 F.R. 17024 (Mar. 27, 2014)]

The export of defense articles under the Arms Export Control Act (AECA) generally requires a license for export issued in accordance with the AECA and the regulations promulgated thereunder. The Department of State's Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC) administers AECA export controls and licensing for defense articles enumerated on the U.S. Munitions List (USML) in the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) at 22 CFR § 121.1. Additional information may be obtained from DDTC by either contacting the DDTC Response Team at (202) 663-1282, or by visiting their website at https://www.pmddtc.state.gov/ddtc_public.

The Department of Commerce's Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) administers export controls for items on the Commerce Control List (CCL), including shotguns with a barrel length of 18 inches or more and related components, muzzle loading rifles and handguns, air guns, replica firearms, and shotgun shells and components, pursuant to the International Emergency Economic Powers Act and Part 774 of the Export Administration Regulations. Additional information may be obtained from BIS by contacting an export counselor at (202) 482-4811, or by visiting their website at www.bis.doc.gov/index.php/policy-guidance/product-guidance/firearms.

Any person who wishes to export a firearm subject to the National Firearms Act must submit ATF Form 9 (5320.9), Application and Permit for Permanent Exportation of Firearms and obtain approval from ATF prior to export.

[22 U.S.C. § 2778; 26 U.S.C. § 5854; 27 CFR § 479.114–479.119]

If a hiring manager is willing to consider paying for relocation expenses, it will be listed in the job announcement. Relocation expenses are typically reserved for higher-level (senior) positions that are hard to fill.

ATF is committed to fostering a positive, healthy environment for our employees. Part of this environment is comprised by flexible work schedules in many of our positions. Please pay special attention to the announcement you are applying to, as it will touch upon any work schedules and flexibilities available. This is also a good conversation to have with the hiring manager to gain greater insight into the position of interest.

The following conditions must usually be met to justify the payment of a SLRP benefit based on recruitment needs:

1. The candidate must be highly qualified for the position.
2. In the absence of a SLRP incentive, the candidate would be unwilling to accept the position.
3. ATF would have difficulty filling the position if the candidate declines the position.

SLRP is typically reserved for hard to fill positions where a low number of highly qualified applicants apply. The job announcement will typically indicate if the hiring manager is willing offer an SLRP to an applicant as well. Offering this incentive is at the discretion of the hiring manager. Recipients will be determined on a case-by-case basis based on organizational need, specific case justification and budget limitations. You can read more about the Student Loan Repayment Program on OPM’s website.

Due to the large volume of applications processed, ATF recruitment and hiring personnel will be unable to assist with individual status checks. Applicants are considered to be in the hiring process unless they receive written notification that they are no longer under consideration. As noted in each industry operations investigator vacancy announcement, the ATF hiring process can be very lengthy. Applicants are forwarded through the hiring process on an as needed basis and not on any set schedule. Budget issues, staffing issues and previously existing pool(s) of applicants may significantly affect the time it takes to complete the hiring process.

If applying based on the education requirement you must already have completed your degree at the time of application. Industry Operations Investigator vacancy announcements are posted at www.USAJobs.gov.

The following informational packet provides detailed information about the ATF industry operations investigator position to include major duties, basic qualifications, conditions of employment and specific requirements: Industry Operations Investigator Informational Packet

A person under indictment for, or convicted of, a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year is not eligible to be issued a license or permit. However, a licensee or permittee who is indicted for, or convicted of, such a crime during the term of his or her existing license or permit is not barred from licensed or permit operations for 30 days after the date of the indictment or the date the conviction becomes final. If the licensee or permittee files an application for relief from disabilities within such 30-day period, he or she may continue licensed or permit operations while the application is pending. If a relief application is not filed during that period, the licensee or permittee may not continue operations beyond such 30-day period. The right of a licensee to continue licensed or permitted operations beyond such 30-day period is also conditioned on the licensee or permittee timely filing a license or permit renewal application disclosing that the applicant has been indicted for, or convicted of, the crime. A licensee or permittee may not continue operations beyond 30 days following the date the Director issues notification that the relief application has been denied. [18 U.S.C. 845(b); 27 CFR 555.142]

Yes. The Director, Industry Operations for the ATF Field Division in which a licensee or permittee is located may revoke a license or permit if the holder has violated any provision of 18 U.S.C. Chapter 40 or its implementing regulations or has become ineligible to receive explosive materials under 18 U.S.C. 842(i). [18 U.S.C. 843(d); 27 CFR 555.71, 555.74]

Yes. A separate license is required for each location where business is conducted. However, a separate license is not required for:

(a) Facilities used only for the storage of explosive materials;

(b) Locations used solely for the storage of records relating to the business; and

(c) Licensed manufacturers’ on-site manufacturing.

[27 CFR 555.41(b)]

The Chief, Federal Explosives Licensing Center, will approve a properly completed application for a license or permit on ATF Form 5400.13/5400.16 if the applicant:

(a) Is not a person prohibited from possessing or receiving explosive materials under 18 U.S.C. 842(i) and none of the applicant’s "responsible persons" are prohibited under section 842(1); (see also Question 4 in General Q&A);

(b) Has not willfully violated any provision of Chapter 40 or the regulations in 27 CFR Part 555;

(c) Has not knowingly withheld information or has not made any false or fictitious statement intended or likely to deceive, in connection with the application,

(d) Has premises in a State from which he intends to conduct business or operations;

(e) Has storage for the class (as described in 27 CFR 555.202) of explosive materials described on the application;

(f) Has certified in writing that he is familiar with and understands all published State laws and local ordinances relating to explosive materials for the location in which he intends to do business;

(g) Has submitted the certificate required by section 21 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended (33 U.S.C. 1341) [18 U.S.C. 843(b); 27 CFR 555.49(b)];

(h) None of the applicant’s employees authorized to possess explosives are prohibited persons under 18 U.S.C. 842(i); and

(i) In the case of an applicant for a limited permit, the applicant has certified that the applicant will not receive explosive materials on more than 6 occasions during the 12-month period for which the limited permit is valid.

Theatrical flash powder is flash powder commercially manufactured in premeasured kits not exceeding 1 ounce in weight, and mixed immediately prior to use and intended for use in events such as theatrical shows, stage plays, band concerts, magic acts, thrill shows, and clown acts in circuses. A manufacturer’s license allows on-site manufacturers to operate nationally on one license issued to their principal place of business.

[27 CFR 555.11: definitions of "flash powder" and "theatrical flash powder", 555.41(b)]